altruistic behaviors can still evolve if
(a) individuals reciprocate with one another.
(b) the behaviors do not result in complete loss of fitness.
(c) the coefficient of relatedness, r, is < 0.25.
(d) only some individuals are altruistic.
2. The coefficient of relatedness, r, between an aunt and her niece
(given the aunt and her sibling are full-siblings) in a normal
diploid species is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.125
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.1
(e) 0.375
3. One significant cost of living in groups is
(a) increased intraspecific competition.
(b) increased vigilance.
(c) increased relatedness among group members.
(d) greater difficulty in finding mates.
4. In many bird species young adults exhibit helping behavior at
the nest of their parents and do not breed themselves. This
pattern could have evolved because
(a) all of these
(b) helpers are highly related to the individuals they assist.
(c) young adults are unlikely to successfully breed themselves.
(d) experience increases breeding success.
(e) the presence of helpers increases nestling survivorship.
5. We use the economic approach to questions in behavioral ecology,
such as why do starlings lay 8 eggs on average, because
(a) net changes in fitness (B-C) are evolutionarily important.
(b) economists are clearer thinkers than biologists.
(c) birds use cost/benefit analysis in decision-making.
(d) it is easy to quantify costs and benefits.
(e) all of these.
7. What is the primary explanation for why males tend to have
flashy morphology and behavior?
(a) Females invest more time and resources per offspring.
(b) Males are generally larger.
(c) Male food resources are more abundant.
(d) Males provide parental care.
(e) Availability of mates limits female reproductive success
8. Which of the following is not an explanation for how secondary
sexual characteristics may evolve?
(a) The principle of Tradeoffs
(b) Fisher Runaway Selection
(c) Pre-existing Sensory Bias
(d) The Handicap Principle
(e) ---
9. When the environment of an animal changes, the animal may
respond in several ways. Which of the following represents a
correct sequence (from most rapid to slowest) of potential animal
responses?
(a) migration, acclimation, morphological change, evolution
(b) acclimation, migration, evolution, morphological change
(c) migration, evolution, acclimation, morphological change
(d) migration, evolution, morphological change, acclimation
(e) acclimation, morphological change, migration, evolution
10. Which of the following statements follows from the principle of
tradeoffs?
(a) Time used for mating is not available for foraging.
(b) Environmental tolerances can be altered by reallocating energy.
(c) Natural selection has resulted in a complex barter system.
(d) Economic approaches ignore the effect of tradeoffs on behavior.
12. Advocates of the model known as species selection propose that
evolutionary trends result from
(a) species differences in rates of extinction and speciation
(b) the tendency for natural selection to perfect adaptations
(c) a direct stepwise progression furthering the evolutionary trend
(d) phyletic transformation of a single species
(e) preadaptation of species for possible changes in the environment
13. The retention of larval characteristics in mature individuals of some
salamander species is an example of
(a) heterochrony
(b) natural selection
(c) preadaptation
(d) a primitive character
(e) divergence
14. The evolutionary transformation of a fishes' primitive lung into
a swim bladder (float) is an example of
(a) preadaptation
(b) convergent evolution
(c) divergent evolution
(d) adaptive radiation
(e) paedomorphosis
116. When scientists observe that populations of a single species in
different environments differ in some characteristic (such as body size,
or temperature tolerance) they must consider two possible explanations
(a) phenotypic response to the environment and evolutionary change
(b) natural selection and genetic drift
(c) phenotypic response and acclimation
(d) loss of genetic variation and pre-existing bias
(e) ---
17. Phylogenies are useful in addressing questions of when and how novel
traits evolved because
(a) all of these
(b) they describe relationships among species with & without a trait
(c) they allow us to discern the order in which traits evolved
(d) they provide information about when two lineages diverged
18. The biological species concept cannot be used to describe which of these
types of presumed species
(a) all of these
(b) asexual
(c) ring
(d) fossil
19. The model of adaptive radiation (for example, on islands) is based on
(a) all of these
(b) founder effects
(c) genetic drift and natural selection
(d) allopatric speciation
20. The fossil record shows
(a) extinct forms, some of which seem to be related to modern forms
(b) linear progressions from ancestral forms to modern day organisms
(c) a complete record of organisms on earth through geological time
(d) intact series of evolutionary intermediates between ancestors and extant species
21. Horses hooves are homologous with our finger nails because
(a) they evolved from a structure in a common ancestor
(b) they have the same chemical structure
(c) the ancestors of fossils had feet with 3 toes
(d) all of these
22. There is no convincing fossil evidence for which of the following?
(a) genetic drift
(b) evolution
(c) extinction
(d) change
(e) punctuated equilibrium
23. Which of the following was NOT one of Darwin's observations?
(a) Most individuals have an equal chance to survive and reproduce
(b) Changes in organisms were gradual and took place slowly
(c) Members of the same species may exhibit considerable variation
(d) Some characters are heritable & passed on to their offspring
(e) Some characters are associated with a better chance of survival
24. The word evolution as used in biology literally means
(a) change
(b) natural selection
(c) genetic drift
(d) divergence
(e) mutation
25. The evolutionary process that operates primarily through chance is
(a) genetic drift
(b) natural selection
(c) isolation
(d) mating preference
26. Genetic drift
(a) all of these
(b) may lead to a loss of variation in a population
(c) requires small populations
(d) occurs in populations exhibiting the founder effect
(e) may occur when conditions produce the bottleneck effect
27. As the trees in England become LESS sooty due to pollution controls
on factories, which of the following should occur?
(a) Fewer dark moths should survive (relative to light moths)
(b) Numbers of each morph won't change due to stabilizing selection
(c) Genetic mutations will be reversed
(d) fewer light-gray moths should survive
28. Elaborate male characters, such as the sword of swordtail fishes,
are often the result of
(a) sexual selection
(b) stabilizing selection
(c) kin selection
(d) directional selection
(e) all of these
29. According to the biological species concept, a species is
composed of
(a) populations that potentially interbreed & produce viable young
(b) related organisms
(c) a group of reproductive females
(d) organisms located in the same habitat
(e) all individuals in an area with the same ecological requirements
30. Which of the following is NOT an example of an isolating mechanism?
(a) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
(b) species-specific courtship rituals
(c) incompatible reproductive structures
(d) hybrid breakdown
31. Allopatric speciation requires
(a) geographic isolation
(b) gradual evolutionary changes
(c) polyploidy
(d) adaptive radiation
32. Which of the following can result in instant speciation?
(a) polyploidy
(b) development of a physical barrier
(c) increase in physical size
(d) change in environmental conditions
(e) the introduction of a new predator into an area
33. Phylogenetic relationships, when determined solely by the study of
comparative morphology, may be incorrect due to
(a) convergence
(b) morphological divergence
(c) adaptive radiation
(d) extinction
34. Which of the following is NOT a very useful indicator of phylogenetic
relatedness?
(a) similar ecological requirements
(b) base sequences in DNA
(c) amino acid sequences in a protein
(d) similar embryonic development
36. Population size depends upon
(a) all of these
(b) deaths
(c) births
(d) migration
(e) immigration
39. The work of Reznick and Endler with guppies has shown that
(a) all of these
(b) average offspring size can be influenced by natural selection
(c) the average age at which individuals mature is heritable
(d) none of these
(e) that predation regime affects size at maturity
40. Natural selection involves:
(a) differential contribution of offspring (or genes) to the next generation.
(b) avoiding drowning in the gene pool.
(c) differential longevity among individuals with unique genotypes.
(d) random alterations in allelic frequencies in small populations.
(e) random alterations in populations through gene flow.
41. The situation involving a large and genetically diverse
population being drastically reduced in numbers and in diversity through
disease and/or harvest, then increasing in numbers again, but with reduced
genetic diversity in the population, when the stress/es has/have been removed
is best referred to as:
(a) bottleneck effect.
(b) natural selection.
(c) gene flow.
(d) founder effect.
(e) heterozygote superiority.
42. Which of the following is an acceptable definition of evolution?
(a) a change in the genetic makeup of a population
(b) a change in the phenotypic makeup of a population
(c) a change in the environmental conditions
(d) a change in the genotypic makeup of an individual
(e) a change in the species composition of a community
43. Anatomical structures that show similar function but dissimilar
embryonic and evolutionary background are said to be
(a) analogous.
(b) homologous.
(c) primitive.
(d) monophyletic.
(e) polyphyletic.
44. Natural selection is based on all of the following EXCEPT
(a) the need for individuals to adapt to their environment.
(b) variation within populations.
(c) differential reproductive success within populations.
(d) competition for resources within populations
45. When a hurricane results in the death of 50% of a population
and as a result some gene frequencies are changed, this is an example of
(a) genetic drift and/or natural selection
(b) artificial selection
(c) adaptive radiation
(d) climatic shift
(e) natural selection only
47. All of the following would tend to prevent interbreeding
between two different gene pools EXCEPT (A) different mating calls;
(B) different fur coloration; (C) different breeding times; (D) different
chromosome numbers.
(a) B
(b) A
(c) C
(d) D
(e) B and D
48. Which of the following statements is consistent with
the punctuated equilibrium hypothesis?
(a) Long periods of no change are broken by short bursts of great change.
(b) Evolution proceeds at a slow, steady pace.
(c) Rapid speciation is caused by population explosions.
(d) There is an equilibrium between living and extinct species.
(e) Large populations evolve more quickly than small ones.
49. A rapid method of speciation that has been important in the
history of flowering plants is
(a) polyploidy.
(b) genetic drift.
(c) parapatric speciation.
(d) a mutation in the gene controlling the timing of flowering.
(e) behavioral isolation.
50. Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally
mate but the offspring do not complete development. This is an example of
(a) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid inviability.
(b) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid breakdown.
(c) the prezygotic barrier called hybrid sterility.
(d) gametic isolation.
(e) adaptation.
51. If two subspecies, A and B, are not considered separate species
even though they cannot interbreed, then
(a) gene flow between A and B may exist through other related subspecies.
(b) they are groups that are endemic to isolated geographic regions.
(c) they have eliminated postzygotic barriers but not prezygotic barriers.
(d) gene flow has ceased and genetic isolation is complete.
(e) their diploid gametes are produced by nondisjunction.
52. A characteristic of allopatric speciation is
(a) geographic isolation.
(b) the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones.
(c) asexually reproducing populations.
(d) artificial selection.
(e) large populations.
FIGURE 1:
53-a. Referring to Fig. 1 -- The most recent common ancestor for
species C and D occurs at position
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 1
(e) none of these
53-b. Referring to Fig. 1 -- The most recent common ancestor for
species A and B occurs at position
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) none of these
54. Phylogeny is the
(a) evolutionary history of a species or lineage.
(b) life history of an organism.
(c) theory of evolution by natural selection.
(d) branch of biology concerned with the diversity of life.
(e) study of developmental differences among plant species.
55. According to the hypothesis known as species selection, an
evolutionary trend (such as increasing body size) results from
(a) differential rates of speciation and extinction in lineages.
(b) a drive toward perfection.
(c) paraphyletic groupings of endemic species.
(d) stepwise progression of a single, unbranched lineage.
(e) phyletic evolution that gradually transforms a single population.
56. The changing facial features of a maturing child are an
example of
(a) allometric growth.
(b) phylogeny.
(c) preadaptation.
(d) paedomorphosis.
(e) homologies.
57. In which of the following populations is genetic drift most likely to be operating?
(a) 300 adults with mating sex ratio of 1 male to every 5 females
(b) 500 individuals with 20% juveniles
(c) 400 adults with a mating sex ratio of 2 males to every 3 females
(d) 250 adults
(e) 300 individuals with 20 juveniles and an even mating sex ratio
58. The most parsimonious tree is the one
(a) with the fewest evolutionary transitions
(b) based on the greatest number of traits
(c) based on characters that change only once in the lineage
(d) true phylogeny
(e) with the greatest number of evolutionary transitions
Character Matrix
